Who Dares to Change the Very Word of God?

The following was a comment I made on another Blogsite. For posterity's sake I'm posting it here for any who care to see some chicanery...


To all who desire to know the truth!

Fact: The Textus Receptus Greek text for John 1:9 is identical to the Westcott-Hort text covering the same verse! Please see below for a comparison of the Greek texts. Why then did the English translators of the Westcott-Hort text choose to give the Greek language a different meaning from what it says in Greek?

In case you were not aware of the above fact, you need to know this…

Fact: The King James Bible is the only English translation based on the Textus Receptus. The other modern versions use the Nestle-Aland Greek Text which predominantly derives its heritage from the work of Westcott and Hort.

(Greek NT - Textus Receptus) John 1:9:

ην το Φως το αληθινον ο Φωτιζει παντα ανθρωπον ερχομενον εις τον κο σμον


(KJV) John 1:9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

(Greek NT – Westcott -Hort ) John 1:9:

ην το Φως το αληθινον ο Φωτιζει παντα ανθρωπον ερχομενον εις τον κο σμον

(NASB) John 1:9 There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man.

Other similar modern translations from the Nestle – Aland text:

(CEV) John 1:9 The true light that shines on everyone was coming into the world.
(RSV) John 1:9 The true light that enlightens every man was coming into the world.
(Holman NT) John 1:9 The true light, who gives light to everyone, was coming into the world.

To the honest seeker of truth – do you see it? The Greek text found in the Textus Receptus and the Westcott – Hort New Testament texts are identical! In other words, they say the same thing in Greek. How then can you have two different English renderings from the same Greek sentence? The KJV states that man is coming into the world and the other English renderings state that the Light is coming into the world. Why is that if they both come from the same Greek text with no variation ? There is NO clear reason to change the meaning of the Greek text. As Jesus said, ‘Take heed therefore how ye hear…’


Another Fact: The Textus Receptus Greek text reads dramatically different from the Westcott – Hort/Nestle – Aland text. As a matter of fact, the omissions found in the Nestle – Aland New Testament text when compared to the Textus Receptus New Testament text are equivalent to the number of words found in First and Second Peter!

Here is another example of a doctrine – the blood of Jesus – that is eliminated in the Westcott – Hort text, but clearly stated in the Textus Receptus. You be the judge as to which is correct and which is not.

(Greek NT - Textus Rec.) Colossians 1:14
εν ω εχομεν τ ηυ απολυτρωσιν ςτα του αιματ ο ς αυτου την αΦβστν τωνα μ αρτιωυ


(KJV) Colossians 1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, [even] the forgiveness of sins:

(Greek NT - W-H ) Colossians 1:14
εν ω εχομεν τ ηυ απολυτρωσιν την αΦβστν τωνα μ αρτιωυ


(You can clearly see the Greek text is not the same for the Westcott - Hort text as the Textus Receptus)

(NASB) Colossians 1:14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.

Not one mention of blood in the Westcott - Hort text and the NASB translators were faithful here to the underlying Greek, even though it is not the BIBLE!

In Him,

Eye